Meu-retired
Peer Supporter
Here is my dilema: my partner is beginning to turn into TMS and Dr Sarno, but after having horrific back pain for 4 months the doctors want to operate, this is the MIR she had:
Imaging Tests:
Patient: A 65-year-old patient who consults for acute, limiting, and invalidating intense lumboradicular pain.
Medical History (A.P.):
No known drug allergies (No RAMC). No relevant medical-surgical history for the current process.
Physical Examination (E.F.):
Presents with mechanical lower back pain, contracture, and antalgic position.
Presents neurogenic claudication of a few hundred meters.
Intense sciatica of a few weeks of evolution.
No clear objective deficit (perhaps 4+/5 for dorsiflexion).
No reported alterations of perineal sensitivity or sphincter control.
Imaging Tests:
• Discopathies with listhesis and instability at the L3 to L5 levels.
• Spinal canal, lateral recess, and foraminal stenosis in the three most affected levels in varying degrees of severity.
• Discrete right posterolateral-foraminal hernia at L5-S1.
Commentary and Plan:
In view of the imaging findings and the clinical presentation, the diagnosis of MULTILEVEL SPINAL CANAL STENOSIS AND INSTABILITY is established.
The surgical indication is established as STABILIZATION AND DECOMPRESSION L3-L5.
apparently it is urgent that she gets surgery or the nerve damage can be greater.
There is my dilema: There are cases where surgery is the only option!? Apparently this is such a case and i could be hurting her by delaying the operation and trying to work with her on TMS? I feel guilty, what if I am wrong and surgery IS THE only way out? Sometimes it is so right?
should i close my mouth and let her proceed with the surgery?
I am lost here..
thanks
Imaging Tests:
Patient: A 65-year-old patient who consults for acute, limiting, and invalidating intense lumboradicular pain.
Medical History (A.P.):
No known drug allergies (No RAMC). No relevant medical-surgical history for the current process.
Physical Examination (E.F.):
Presents with mechanical lower back pain, contracture, and antalgic position.
Presents neurogenic claudication of a few hundred meters.
Intense sciatica of a few weeks of evolution.
No clear objective deficit (perhaps 4+/5 for dorsiflexion).
No reported alterations of perineal sensitivity or sphincter control.
Imaging Tests:
• Discopathies with listhesis and instability at the L3 to L5 levels.
• Spinal canal, lateral recess, and foraminal stenosis in the three most affected levels in varying degrees of severity.
• Discrete right posterolateral-foraminal hernia at L5-S1.
Commentary and Plan:
In view of the imaging findings and the clinical presentation, the diagnosis of MULTILEVEL SPINAL CANAL STENOSIS AND INSTABILITY is established.
The surgical indication is established as STABILIZATION AND DECOMPRESSION L3-L5.
apparently it is urgent that she gets surgery or the nerve damage can be greater.
There is my dilema: There are cases where surgery is the only option!? Apparently this is such a case and i could be hurting her by delaying the operation and trying to work with her on TMS? I feel guilty, what if I am wrong and surgery IS THE only way out? Sometimes it is so right?
should i close my mouth and let her proceed with the surgery?
I am lost here..
thanks