Cara
Peer Supporter
Hi all,
After healing from back pain (still feels like a miracle) and cautiously returning to running, I've had some tendonitis-like injuries: plantar fasciitis in the fall, and now posterior tibialis tendonitis--both diagnosed and treated by a really great sports chiropractor who really just wanted to get me back to healthy and not rope me into the repetitive visit thing. He encouraged me to do some gentle running as I was healing from this last round and assured me I wasn't doing any permanent damage (which the internet--I know I shouldn't have looked--told me I was.) Anyway, to cut to the heart of my question, on Friday he told me I was good to go. As far as he was concerned, I'm healed and doing the exercises he showed me is just good for staying in shape and being an athlete. On Friday, I ran only a teeny bit more than I had been running, and my OTHER ankle got the exact same symptoms my first ankle had just healed from. An overuse injury seems unlikely in this scenario, doesn't it? So I got suspicious. Symptom imperative? How on earth can one tell with something as nebulous as tendonitis? There aren't tests that are reasonable. There isn't any visible swelling. How can we tell a symptom imperative or TMS-caused injury from one that's real and should send us back to the doctor?
This is legitimately confusing, isn't it?
After healing from back pain (still feels like a miracle) and cautiously returning to running, I've had some tendonitis-like injuries: plantar fasciitis in the fall, and now posterior tibialis tendonitis--both diagnosed and treated by a really great sports chiropractor who really just wanted to get me back to healthy and not rope me into the repetitive visit thing. He encouraged me to do some gentle running as I was healing from this last round and assured me I wasn't doing any permanent damage (which the internet--I know I shouldn't have looked--told me I was.) Anyway, to cut to the heart of my question, on Friday he told me I was good to go. As far as he was concerned, I'm healed and doing the exercises he showed me is just good for staying in shape and being an athlete. On Friday, I ran only a teeny bit more than I had been running, and my OTHER ankle got the exact same symptoms my first ankle had just healed from. An overuse injury seems unlikely in this scenario, doesn't it? So I got suspicious. Symptom imperative? How on earth can one tell with something as nebulous as tendonitis? There aren't tests that are reasonable. There isn't any visible swelling. How can we tell a symptom imperative or TMS-caused injury from one that's real and should send us back to the doctor?
This is legitimately confusing, isn't it?
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